MODULE 11 QUESTION PAPER ( TURBINE AEROPLANE AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS ) CAREER SPOT

MODULE 11 QUESTION PAPER ( TURBINE AEROPLANE AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS )

1) Level A likelihood of failure?  Mike tooley pg: 154
a) Greater than 10-5
b) b/w 10-7 and 10-9
c) b/w 10-5 and 107
d) less than 10-9.
  
2) Hydraulic fluid contains vegetable and alcohol base is? AMR pg:386
a) Phosphate ester base
b) Mineral base
c) Vegetable base.
 
3) Class A is fire extinguisher is used in ?Google
a) Solid combustible material.
b) Liquid
c) Metal
d) Electrical
 
4) LHF frequency? Civil avionics system Pg:131
a) 30-300 mHz
b) 3-30 ghz
c) 30-300 kHz.
 
5) Fire extinguisher agent used in pax cabin and flight deck? EASA pg:8.22
a) Halogenated hydrocarbon.
b) Dry powder
c) Co2
note: if asked most common type than both Halon and water
 
6) The primary strength members of trusses of four longerons? Amr pg : 27
a) Pratt
b) Warren
c) Pratt or warren
d) Warren and pratt.
 
7) MTCS? Medium pressure system? EASA pg:16.7
a) 3-4-inchdia duct is used those doesn’t have air bottles/ storage reservoir and used for
engine starts, engine de-icing, wing de-icing and air-conditioning.
b) 3-4-inchdia duct is used those have air bottles/ storage reservoir and used for engine starts,
engine de-icing, wing de-icing and air-conditioning
c) Either A or B

8) MTCS? 15A pg: 285
a) Glaze ice forms a smooth, thick coating over the leading edge of the a/c , the temperature is
just slightly below freezing, the water has more time to flow before it freezes and broken by
de-ice boots.
b) Glaze ice forms on a rough surface on the a/c L.E , because the temp. of the air is very low
and freezes the water before it has time to spread
c) Only B is correct

9) Landing gear of an airplane is classified by? AMR pg:445
a) Shock absorbing quality
b) Their construction arrangements
c) The number of different characteristics.
 
10) Cabin altitude, rate of climb and barometric setting are automatic through built in logic and
communication with?
(NR)
a) FMS & ADC.
b) FMS & TCAS
c) FMS & ASI
 
11) Longerons takes of structure?
a) Tension and compression
b) Tensile and torsion
c) Tension or Compression.
d) Tension and bending
 
15a pg: 01 Note: load taken by structure? ANS: Tension or Compression
note: The aircraft components are composed of various parts called structural members
(i.e., stringers, longerons, ribs, bulkheads, etc.). Aircraft structural members are designed to
carry a load or to resist stress. A single member of the structure may be subjected to a
combination of stresses. In most cases the structural members are designed to carry end
loads rather than side loads: that is, to be subjected to tension or compression rather than
bending.
 
12) If a fuel tank vented discharge clear of the aero plane expansion space required is (EASA 10.4)
a) 5%
b) 2%- when there is no vent
c) Not required
 
13) MIL-L-6047 aromatic lacquer is used for? Google
a) Fuel resistant.
b) Hydraulic fluid resistant
c) Both A and B

14) Continuous flow and pressure demand system is used for? Easa pg: 15.9
a) Pax
b) Crew
c) Both.
note: in some aircraft a continuous flow oxygen system is installed for ? ANS: for both
passenger and crew
 
15) When the temperature exceeds and the pr. Is released in o2 bottle how to find it out ? EASA pg: 15.17
a) Blow out disk rupture.
b) Blow out disk will not indicate
c) By seeing the pr. Indicator
note: The absence of the green disk indicates the relief valve has opened, and the cause
should be investigated before flight.
 
16) Thermal Discharge in fire bottle identified by ? NYTR EASA pg: 8.14
a) Normally it will show in yellow
b) Pr. Indicator and it shows Red colored for thermal.
c) Pr. Indicator and it shows yellow colored for thermal
 
17) EEC (electronic engine control) of target hardware for ? mike tooley pg:156
a) LSAP.
b) OSS
c) UMS
 
18) Landing gear outer cylinder called by? AMR pg:449
a) Lateral member
b) Longitudinal member
c) Strut.
 
19) Engine transfer load to wing by ?AMR pg:60
a) Strut
b) Pylon
c) Strut or pylon.
 
20) Cabin emergency equipment (EASA techbook pg-7.2)
a) Should be in proper designated location & checked before each flight
b) As in A and it should be in proper condition as per CS-25.
c) Cabin should perform inspection & certify it
 
DGCA MODULE 11 QUESTION PAPERS  

21) MTCS? 15a pg:303
a) Drain mast must be heated to prevent ice formation and blockage caused by on ground
b) Drain mast must be heated to prevent ice formation and blockage caused by in flight.c) Drain mast must be heated by electrical to prevent ice formation and blockage caused by on
ground and in flight
d) Drain mast must be heated to by bleed air to prevent ice formation and blockage caused by
on ground and in flight.
note: Heaters are provided for toilet drain lines, water lines, drain masts, and waste water
drains when they are located in an area that is subjected to freezing temperatures IN
FLIGHT. Most have electric resistance heating elements or use hot air from the pneumatic
system to combat icing.
 
22) MTICS? Adjusting of a windshield wiper by? 15A pg:308
a) By blade tension
b) The angle at which the blade sweeps across the windshield
c) Proper parking of the wiper
d) Number of strokes.
 
23) Wing sweep back ? 15A pg:63
a) Low aspect ratio and induced drag is higher
b) High aspect ratio and induced drag is less.
c) Either A or B
 
24) When increase AOA ? NA
a) Centre of pressure moves forward
b) Centre of pressure moves downward
c) Resultant lift rotate forward and center of pressure move forward.
 
25) SATCOM system is made up of how many subsystems? Mike Tooley pg:245
a) 2
b) 3.
c) 4
Note: SATCOM system is made up of three subsystems: 1) the ground earth station, the a/c earth station
and the satellite system
 
26) Flashing Green? 9Apg:520
a) Clear to taxi.
b) Clear to stop
c) Clear to runway
 
27) Alternate Red and Green? 9Apg 520
a) Exercise extreme caution during taxi
b) Exercise extreme caution.
c) Exercise extreme during Engine run
 
28) High pr. System ? EASA pg: 16.4
a) High pr. Of 1000 psi is stored in metal bottles storage cylinder of heavy weight, wire
wrapped, steel constructed and date of manufacturer and safe working pr. Should be on the
reservoir as well as date stamped of last HST
b) High pr. Of 1000 psi is stored in metal bottles storage cylinder of light weight, wire wrapped,
steel constructed and date of manufacturer and safe working pr. Should be on the reservoir
as well as date stamped of last HST.
c) High pr. Of 1000 psi is stored in metal bottles storage cylinder of light weight, wire wrapped,
steel constructed and date of manufacturer and safe working pr. Should not be on the
reservoir as well as date stamped of last HST
d) None of the above
 
29) MTCS for strut of air oleo shock absorber? AMR pg: 449
a) The top of strut is an integral part or attached to trunion
b) The strut is also called ‘outer cylinder’
c) Both A and B.
 
30) Tire should be allowed to set , fully inflated before being installed on an a/c? AMR pg:490
a) 3 to 6
b) 6 to 12
c) 12 to 24.
 
31) Sealant used in structure for? Easa pg:3.3
a) To prevent pressurization leak
b) To prevent the fuel or fluid leak
c) To provide a aerodynamic sealing and corrosion prevention.
d) All of the above.
 
32) Out flow valve is controlled by? NA
a) Manual
b) Self
c) Automatic
 
33) Pressurization control panel is provided in cockpit for
a) Automatic control
b) Self-control.
c) Manual control
 
34) Outflow valve detailed question 
a) Open closing
b) ….
 
35) Lindbergh fire detection system? AMR pg:661
a) Temperature of gas as sensing unit
b) Pressure of gas as sensing unit.
c) Uses the density as sensing unit
 
36) MTCS: i/b and o/b aileron using condition? EASA pg: 9.2
a) In large a/c during high speed o/b aileron may be locked and i/b aileron may be used
b) In large a/c during high speed o/b aileron may be used and i/b aileron may be locked
c) In large a/c during high speed o/b aileron may be locked and i/b aileron is be used and during flap
extension i/b aileron droop
 
37) When balancing control surfaces, trailing edge moves upward this means? EASA pg: 9.15
a) Static over balance.
b) Static under balance
c) Dynamic over balance
 
38) During rigging of control surface trim tabs to be? EASA pg: 9.15
a) Trim tabs on the surface should be secured in the stand with flight control which should
move fully up and down
b) Trim tabs on the surface should be secured in the neutral position when the control surface
is mounted on the stand.
c) Trim tab should be removed and kept separately
 
39) The leading edge flap (slat) is similar in operation to the ? 15A pg:22
a) Fowler flap
b) Plain flap.
c) Split
 
40) Artificial Feeler?
Note: The resistance transmitted through the control system provides the pilot with a natural feel
regarding the magnitude of control input and associated stresses placed on the aircraft
Without artificial feel, pilots could generate high levels of loads on the aircraft structure without
realizing it
 
41) Flow control valve? AMR pg: 404
a) It is used to change the direction of fluid flow.
b) It is used to change the speed of fluid flow
c) It is used for both speed/ direction change of fluid flow
 
42) Which of the following pneumatic sources cannot be used in air? NA
a) Engine bleed
b) APU
c) Ground.
d) Engine bleed and pneumatic bottle
 
43) Electroluminescent light? NA
a) Ac supply b) Energy saving
c) ?
d) All.
 
44) ATSU (Air Traffic Service Unit) types of uses
a) The main function of the Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU) is to provide the flight crew and the
aircraft systems with the means of managing the data link information exchange between the
aircraft and the Air Traffic Service (ATS) centers
 
45) EFIS uses input data from? Mike tooley pg: 177/178
a) • VOR/ILS/MLS
• TACAN (see later)
• pitch, roll, heading rate and acceleration data from an attitude heading reference system (AHRS) or
conventional vertical gyro
• compass system
• radar altimeter
• air data system
• distance measuring equipment (DME)
• area navigation system (RNAV)
• vertical navigation system (VNAV)
• weather radar system (WXR)
• automatic direction finder (ADF).
A typical EFIS system comprises:
• primary flight display (PFD)
• navigation display (ND)
• display select panel (DSP)
• display processor unit (DPU)
• weather radar panel (WXP)
• multifunction display (MFD)
• multifunction processor unit (MPU).
 
46) EFIS includes operation of? Mike tooley pg179
a) VOR, IRS, DME
b) Radar, Altimeter, Compass
c) RNAV
d) All.
 
47) The 777 Electronic flight bag (EFB) data buses can be updated through? EASA pg:21.3
a) The a/c data loader
b) Wirelessly
c) Both.
 
48) MTCS? ATC uses
a) Communication includes VHF Omni range, VHF, HF.
b) Now a day’s most frequently used communication is HF
c) VHF not used in ATC
 
49) Sequence valve? AMR pg:409
Note: A sequence valve is sometimes called a timing valve because it times certain hydraulic
operations in proper sequence. A common example of the use of this valve is in a landing-gear
system, where the landing-gear doors must be opened before the gear is extended and the gear
must be retracted before the
doors are closed.
 
50) Iridium system use? A/C E & E Mike Tooley pg: 246
a) Medium orbit
b) High orbit
c) Low earth orbit.
 
51) IAS indicator is differential pr gauge that established the relationship b/w? EASA pg: 5.25
a) Ram air pr (a/c pitot tube pr) and static air pressure
note: the airspeed indicator(ASI) is another primary flight instrument that is also a differential pr
gauge. Ram air pr. from the a/c pitot tube is direct into diaphragm in an analog airspeed
instrument case static air pr. from the a/c static vents is direct in to the case surrounding the
diaphragm . As the speed of the a/c varies the ram air pr. varies, expanding or contracting the
diaphragm. linkage attached to the diaphragm causes a pointer to move over the instrument
face, which is calibrated in mass per hour (mph)
 
52) The term pressure altitude is used to describe the indication on altimeter gives when? EASA
pg:5.21
a) 29.44
b) 29.92.
c) 29.99
note: mean sea level absolute pr. in mercury is 29.92in
 
53) Windshield is electrically heated? MTCS EASA pg: 3.7
a) Is less impact resistance to impact damage
b) Is more impact resistance to impact damage
c) Only for purpose of anti -icing not for impact resistance
 
54) ACM working cycle? MTCS EASA pg:4.4
a) engine compressor--->primary heat exchanger----> compressor---> secondary heat exchanger-
----> expansion turbine----> water seprator----> bypassed bleed air from compressor----> to cabin
cooling
 
55) FVC (VCM) working cycle? MTCS AME pg:562fine droplets of Freon
Compressor -----> Condenser-----> Evaporator----->Heat Exchanger-----> Ambient air hit heat ^
^
^
^
exchanger & cool air
|
|
|
|
& reticulate air goes
low pr. gas high pr gas high pr. liquid Low pr. cold liquid to cabin
low temp high temp Temp. low
In flight or ground fan air hits condenser
 
56) In mechanical flight control, Cable push pull rod takes which load? 9A pg:144
a) Tension and tensile
b) Tension and bending
c) Tension and compression.
 
57) Fly-by-wire control definition? EASA pg:9.11
a) The fly-by-wire control system employs electrical signals that transmit the pilots action from
the flight deck through a computer to various actuators.
b) The fly-by-wire control system employs hydraulic that transmit the pilots action from the
flight deck through a computer to various actuators
c) The fly-by-wire control system employs mechanical transmission that transmit the pilots
action from the flight deck through a computer to various actuators
 
58) The purpose of a Microphone is to converts? 15Apg:521
a) Aquatic energy to electrical.
b) Aquatics energy to sound energy
c) Sound energy into electric energy
 
59) Advantage of 2nd gen IMA are
a) Partial open rack/ cabinet architecture.
b) Closed architecture
note: dedicated / multiple rack PSUs* Serial back plane *Increased functionality including
more ex. of loop closure *multiple suppliers of modules*possible standard backplane *AScB
Avionic Standard communication bus or A429
 
60) first generation IMA which have characteristic and apllication to a/c electrical load management system & load management system, electrical power distribution load sheet ? EASA pg:6.6
a) B777 ELMS EUs.
b) B777 AIMS
c) Honeywell EMC
 
61) In composite control surface drain hole is ?AMRpg: 57
a) Drain at single point
b) Drain at multiple point
c) Sealed from atmosphere.

62) The heaviest rib at the inboard edge of the wing where the wing attaches to the fuselage is
called?
EASA pg: 3.13
a) Nose Rib
b) Main Rib
c) Butt rib or bulkhead rib. or compression rib
Note: Wing butt ribs may be found at the inboard edge of the wing where the wing
attaches to the fuselage. Depending on its location and method of attachment, a butt rib
may also be called a bulkhead rib or a compression rib if it is designed to receive
compression loads that tend to force the wing spars together.
 
63) The valve which adjust the temp. of hot air skipped from ACM is directed to secondary heat
exchanger is called?
EASA pg: 4.29
a) Mix valve
b) Trim air valve
c) Temp. control valve
d) All.
 
64) Rib in wings? AMR pg: 47
a) Rib is a span wise member of the wing structure used to give the wing section its shape
b) Rib is span wise member in the wing to transmit skin loads into the body frames or wing ribs
c) Rib is a chord wise member of the wing structure used to give the wing section its shape and
also to tramet the air loads from the covering to this spars.
 
65) Major zone number include lower half of the fuselage to the rear pressure bulkhead, below the main cabin deck? AMR pg: 25
a) Z 100.
b) Z 200
c) Z300
 
66) MTCS regarding? double acting piston pump? AMR pg:413
a) A double acting piston actuating cylinder is designed to apply pressure on both sides of the
piston.
b) A double acting piston actuating cylinder is designed to apply pressure on center sides of the
piston
c) A double acting piston actuating cylinder is designed to apply pressure on both sides of the
piston but one side uses check valve
 
67) For pilot and co-pilot seat belt in how many points it is attached to seat structure? EASA pg: 7.3
a) 2
b) 5.
c) 3
 
68) Supply of strobe light? ELE. Tooley pg: 226
a) 400v dc.
b) 400v ac
c) 400v ac or dc 

69) MTCS about strobe light?
a) Are source for short wavelength, ultra violet radiation together with intense emission in rear
infrared
b) A + the overall effect is high intensity white flash.
c) None of the above
 
70) Landing Lights are:
a) Sealed beam devices
b) 600-1000W filament Lamps
c) Parabolic Reflector concentrates Light in a Directional Beam
d) Located on the wing tips or on the front of the fuselage
e) ATA.
 
71) As a rule wing has ____ spar? Easa pg: 3.11
a) Two.
b) Three
c) Mono
d) Multi
 
72) Type 1 avionics system has?
a) Digital input and digital output.
b) Digital input and discrete output
c) Discrete input and digital output
d) Discrete input and discrete output
 
73) When both respective generator circuit breakers (GCB) and bus tie breakers (BTB) open? (NA)
a) Amber
b) Blue
c) White
 
74) In L.E De-icing boots the expansion timings done by?
a) Timing / distributing valve.
b) ?
c) 15A pg:286
note: Deicer tubes are inflated by an engine-drive air pump (vaccum pump) or by air bleed
from gas turbine engine compressor the inflation sequence is controlled by?
a) either a centrally located distributor valve or by solenoid operated valve located adjacent
to the deicer air inlet
 
75) Wings are of full cantilever type, this means they are built so that? AMR pg-47
a) No external bracing required.
b) External bracing required76) Control cables designation are based on?
a) No. of wire
b) No. of strands
c) No. of strands and wires.
 
77) If increase Seat pitch adjustment? MTCS EASA pg:3.3
a) Large pitch allows more seats to be installed
b) Small pitch allows less seats to be installed
c) Large pitch allows less seats to be installed.
 
78) Vortex generator @MTCS
a) Vortex generator on wing surfaces improves high speed characteristic,
Vortex generator on tail surfaces in general improves low speed characteristics
 
79) Positive dynamic stability
a) motion of amplitude decrease with time.
b) motion of amplitude remain same w.r.t to position
c) motion of amplitude increase with time
 
80) cargo load distribution during loading? EASA pg:7.7
a) Cargo nets and barriers are used to keep cargo from shifting
b) As in A and cargo is loaded into position with consideration to weight and balance
requirements on the a/c.
c) It has to kept as per engineer decision
 
81) Fuel draining in fuel system has? AMR pg: 524
a) Fuel system mst have at least two drain points
b) It has a automatic spring loaded drain point
c) It has a both manual and automatic means for positive locking in closed position.
 
82) MTCS: Many airliners use air stair, when no jetway service or portable stair are available? EASA pg: 7.8
a) They are typically an electrically deployed set of stairs stored under the main cabin floor
which extend out the fuselage from below a cabin door to the ground
b) As in A and air stairs are rarely use on larger wide-body a/c.
c) None of the above
 
83) When the pressure in the lower chamber of diaphragm is equal to the regulator spring force, the diaphragm ceases to move and position the inlet valve to ? AMR pg: 591
a) Stopped
b) Forcedly out
c) Maintains the proper oxygen flow.

84) O2 bottle continuous flow regulator? AMR pg:592
a) Hand held shut off valve
b) Automatically
c) Both.
Note: The pressure regulator for the continuous-flow passenger oxygen system installed in an airliner is
shown in Fig. 16-49. This regulator is attached to the high-pressure oxygen-storagecylinder hand shutoff
valve. It is an altitude-compensating type, which varies supply-line pressure in accordance with cabin
altitude. The regulator is actuated automatically by sensing a rise in cabin-pressure altitude or manually
by controls located on the body of the regulator.

85) MTICS? 
Note: The drain valve, when fully open, permits unrestricted passage of waste from the
tank to a service cart. In the close position, it forms a positive seal. The valve is spring loaded
and self closing and does not require lubrication. It is opened by pulling a handle on its related
exterior service panel. When the handle is in the extended position, it can be rotated to latch it.
A safety valve, which is operated by a control on the service attachment is installed in the drain
tube.
 
86) MTICS? AMR 6th edition pg:625
a) Drain valve is spring loaded and self closing and does not require lubrication
b) The handle is in the extended position, it can be rotated to Unlatch it.
c) The handle is in the extended position, it can be rotated to latch it
d) Drain valve has safety valve installed on drain tube
 
86) Thermocouple (EASA 8.4) or 15a pg:408
A) Heat sensitive
B) Rate of rise in temperature.
C) Both

87) Thermal switches Fire detection system? 15a pg: 408
a) Connected in parallel to each other & parallel with indicator light
b) Connected in parallel to each other & series with indicator light
c) Connected in series to each other & series with indicator light
d) Connected in parallel to each other & parallel with indicator light and heat sensitive.

88) When an Integral fuel tank is used in a wing, the a/c is said to have? EASA pg:3.16
a) Rigid tank
b) Wet wing.
c) Either rigid or wet

89) MTCS? EASA pg: 17.4
a) The waste is collected in tank and emptied from the ground service panel when the a/c is on
the ground.
b) The waste collection is combined with solvents electrically and mechanically to through
outside
c) Is used with fine acid droplets

90) MTCS ? EASA pg-7.2
a) emergency equipment are fire extinguishers, life rafts, escape slide
b) a + also include first aid kit.
c) emergency equipment does not include first aid kit

91) Rinse ball in waste tank located on ? EASA pg: 17.7
a) On top of the tank to rinse it when servicing.
b) On bottom of the tank
c) Rinse ball used to clean the waste tank manually and with the chemical

92) When pilot move the control column?
a) Control column move toward left cause left aileron to ascend & right aileron to descend
b) A + it caused lift on right wind & aircraft bank toward left.
c) Control column move toward left cause left aileron to descend & right aileron to ascend

93) mostly rivets used in aircraft
a) Raised dot.
b) Dimple
c) Cross dash
 
94) MTCS about Ice Insp. Or Wing Scan Lights:
a) Recessed into Sides of the fuselage preset to direct lt. beam at required angles
b) Check Ice formation on wing leading edges and Eng. Intake
c) Sealed Beam type with Filament Lamps of 50-250 Watts. AC/DC type
d) Rear Mounted Eng. Lamps recessed into the trailing edge sections of Wings
e) ATA.
 
95) The PA amplifier provides a level of side tone to the crew’s handset or headsets during voice
announcements?

a) to confirm that the handset or headsets are functional.
 
96) Fire detection and warning system are? 15A pg407
a) Sense or detect the fire
b) Sense or detect the overheat condition
c) Extinguish the fire
d) both a and b.
 
97) IMA 3rdGeneration IMA uses (Which of the following is eg. of 3rd gen IMA) CAS PG:336
a) AIMS
b) ELMS
c) EPIC
d) AFDX.
note: 3rdgeneration IMA ex. or application are ? Airbus Axx/A380 integrated IMA/ AFDX a/c
wide architecture* AFDX- avionics fast switches Ethernet first flight due 2005 

98) MTCS: About Leading edge flap?
a) An Increases chamber area and lift
b) Also known as Droop snoot
c) Both.
 
99) Current limiter (Aircraft Electrical and Electronic Systems-mike tooley,pg-14c)
a) Designed to limit current at predetermined amperage.
b) Has low melting point
c) Cannot be used in heavy power circuit
d) All
 
100) Where stiffening demands become extreme, the skin may be reinforced by (AMR pg-47)
a) Increasing skin thickness
b) Corrugated panel. or honeycomb structure instead of individual stringers
c) only A

101) Doublers are used in? AMR pg:37
a) Landing gear
b) Skin.
c) Longerons
102) Nacelle made up of? AMR pg-60
a) Sheet metal or composite
b) Sheet metal and composite
c) Sheet metal and/or composite

103) Speed brakes are also called? Goggle
a) Drive brakes. or air brake

104) Construction of stabilizer is similar to ?AMR pg:55
a) Wings.
b) Fuselage
c) Frames
note: The construction of stabilizer is similar to that used for wings, with spars, ribs,
stringers, and a surface skin being used.

105) In a 6 poled machine, 90 mechanical degrees correspond to_________ electrical
degrees

a) 30
b) 180
c) 45
d) 270.

106) Load factor for utility a/c is
a) 6.0 and -3.0g for Acrobatic aircraft
b) 4.4g and -1.76g for utility aircraft.
c) 3..78 and -1.52g for normal aircraft

107)Air conditioning and ram air control in cockpit
a) A single switch in the cockpit
b) As in A and this switch is a three position switch for selecting OFF, Normal and Ram.
c) Three position switches with off normal and ram

108) Shuttle valve is pneumatic + usedfor back up for hydraulic? EASA pg16.4
a) is used to close the normal system flow and allow flow of high pr. pneumatic air to operate
the component
 
109) Stringer? AMR pg:28
a) Provide attachment for skin and give shape to fuselage and prevent it from bulging or buckling
and the join structural assemblies with gusset plate

110) The over center link is _____ retracted to allow gear retraction? AMR pg: 454
a) Hydraulically.
b) Electrically
c) Mechanically
 
111) In B777 sys, the Mass memory system can store many type of data files? EASA pg:20.5
a) Audio and video files that are used for pax. briefing and announcements.
b) Audio and video files for pilot
c) Audio and video files for pilot warnings
note: and can include IFE such as pre recorded music. An a/c mass memory system is
accessible to the cabin crew through user interface control panels
 
112) Hands free operation in anti-servo tab by? EASA pg: 1.9
a) Bearing
b) Adjustable Jack screw
c) control linkage.
d) Spring
 
113) MTCSThe best way to avoid damage in strong wind and strom by? (9A pg: 513) (Aircraft
Maintenance Technician handbook-general pg-11-9)
a) If possible, pilot should avoid flying in storm
b) secured inside storm and strong wind proof hangar
c) Aircraft tied down with rope & headed in wind direction.
d) All
 
114) Maintenance person can check fault from ground and on-board maintenance fault? NA
a) Previous
b) Pre-flight
c) Historyd) All.
 
115) Gust lock used in a/c is when? 15A pg:66
a) Level flight attitude
b) During taxing
c) When a/c is parked.
 
116) MTCS about VSI? NA
a) A differential pressure gauge that compares static pressure from the a/c static sys. Directed
into a diaphragm in the instrument case
 
117) Shut off valve used in? NA
a) Engine bleed air
b) APU bleed air
c) Both.
 
118) Engine nacelle strut transfer load to wing by? AMR pg:60
a) Engine mount.
b) Reinforced skin
c) Both a and b
 
119) Fuel expansion EASA pg 10.7
a) Baffeles
b) ?
c) note: When an aircraft maneuvers, the long horizontal nature of an integral wing tank
requires baffling to keep the fuel from sloshing. The wing ribs and box beam structural
members serve as baffles and others may be added specifically for that purpose. Baffle
check valves are commonly used. These valves allow fuel to move to the low, inboard
sections of the tank but prevent it from moving outboard.
 
120) What is the major concern in air conditioning and pressurization? EASA pg:4.39
a) Cooling
b) Heat
c) Overheating.
 
121) Function of ACM in air conditioning? AMR pg:561
a) Increases in temperature
b) Increases pr. of air
c) lower the temperature.
d) all
 
122) In all metal a/c, tension regulator is used in control cable linkage is adjustable
frequently, this is due to ?
EASA pg: 9.8
a) Temperature changes.
b) It became flexible
c) Due to corrosion
 
123) IMA examples? CAS pg: 336a) B777 ELMS EU's
b) Honeywell EPIC
c) B777 Card files
d) All.
note: and B777 AIMS * A380 IMA
 
124) Hand held fire extinguisher are unsuitable as in cabin or cockpit? EASA 8.11
a) Co2.
b) Water
c) Halon
 
125  The movement of control from of surface?
a) Product of force applied by pilot and distance from hinges
b) Sun of force applied by pilot and distance from hinge
 
126) The tail section of an airplane is called? EASA pg:3.18
a) Empennage.
b) Tail cone
c) Stabilizer sections
 
127) In Boeing 777 system, the main IFE computer is connected to cabin service system via an
____data bus?
EASApg:20.4
a) AFDX
b) ARNIC 429
c) ARNIC 629
d) ARNIC 628.
 
128) Wing fuel tank should take? EASA pg:10.3
a) Vibration, fuel load, compression inertia
b) Vibration only
c) Only b is correct
 
129) DFDR comes into operation?
a) a/c in flight
b) engine running on ground
c) both.
 
130) Pneumatic air used on windshield during rain? 15a pg: 307
a) By direct a flow of heated air over windshield.
b) No pneumatic air is used, only wipers are used
c) A spray of rain repellent fluid so than rain drops do not adhere
note: This method uses high pressure, high temperature engine compressor bleed air which is blown
across the windshields (figure 7-21). The air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from striking
the windshield surface.
 
131) When air pressure is reduced to 1000 psi, when pressure reducing valve installed in
primary pressure supply line then pressure reduce to operation of?
AMR pg440
a) Landing gearb) Nose wheel steering
c) Passenger door
d) All.

132) Most shock struts employ a metering pin similar to that shown in figure 9-3 for
controlling the rate of fluid flow from the lower chamber into the upper chamber. During the
compression stroke, the rate of fluid flow is not constant, but is controlled automatically by the
variable shape of the metering pin as it passes through the orifice.

133) Turn and slip indicator regardless, it shows the correct execution o f a turn while
banking the a/c and indicator movement about?
(NA)
a) Vertical axis of a/c yaw.
b) Horizontal axis
c) Longitudinal axis
Note: the turn and slip indicator may also be referred to as the turn and bank indicator or
needle and ball indicator. Most turn and slip indicator are located below the ASI of the
instrument panel basic T, just to left of the direction indicator.

134) Auto pilot system various electric feedback or follow up signals are generated to
progressively reduce?
EASA pg: 5.6 4
a) the error message in auto pilot so that continuous over correction does not tae place

135) Horizontal stabilizer has no? AMR pg: 55
a) Spar
b) Rip
c) Longerons.
Note: The method of construction is similar to that used for wings, with spars,
ribs, stringers, and a surface skin being used.

136) When using external power the generators tie breaker and the bus to break will be in
which position?
EASA pg:6.8
a) Closed, closed
b) Open, closed.
c) Closed, open
137) Equipment to be furnished within reach of one arm distance should positioned? EASA
pg: 7.5
a) Flight crew.
b) Passenger
c) Cabin crew
* Requirements for equipment location on the flight deck are? EASA pg: 7.5
a) Within reach of pilot.
b) Within reach of pax from seat
c) Within reach of cabin crew

138) Plenum chamber is used in? 
a) APU.
b) Engine
c) Both
139) Rate of climb indicator, it is a direct reading differential pr. gauge that compares? EASA
pg 5.23
a) static pr from the a/c static system directed into a diaphragm with static pr surrounding
the diaphragm in the instrument case
note: Rate of climb indicator also know as - VSI or VVI. An analog vertical speed indicator
(VSI) may also be referred to as a vertical velocity indicator or rate of climb indicator

140) A vertically polarized antenna was used to transmit LF radio waves in the range? EASA
pg: 5.13
a) 190kHz to 535 kHz range.
b) 190kHz to 900 kHz
c) 129 kHz to 138 kHz

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    1. Welcome!
      Your most welcome if you want to share question papers.

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  2. Good questions ,thank you

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